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With the FINRA SIE Certification Exam, you can demonstrate your skills and upgrade your knowledge.The FINRA SIE certification exam will provide you with many personal and professional benefits such as more career opportunities, updated and in demands expertise, an increase in salary, instant promotion, and recognition of skills across the world.
FINRA SIE Exam Syllabus Topics:
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FINRA Securities Industry Essentials Exam (SIE) Sample Questions (Q94-Q99):
NEW QUESTION # 94
A registered representative (RR) has a referral relationship with a family friend who is not affiliated with the financial industry. In the absence of a formal agreement, which of the following ways is the RR permitted to compensate the family friend for referrals?
- A. The RR is permitted to split commissions with the family friend.
- B. The RR is permitted to pay a flat-rate referral fee to the family friend.
- C. The RR is permitted to take the family friend out to dinner as a way to say thank you.
- D. The RR is permitted to give the family friend prepaid credit cards equal to 50% of the commissions earned on the referrals.
Answer: C
Explanation:
FINRA prohibits the payment of referral fees or splitting of commissions with individuals who are not registered with a broker-dealer. However, taking a friend out to dinner as a gesture of gratitude is allowed, as it does not involve cash or monetary compensation directly tied to the referral.
* C is correctbecause non-monetary expressions of gratitude (like a dinner) are permitted under FINRA rules.
* Ais incorrect because commission splitting with unregistered individuals is prohibited.
* Bis incorrect because paying referral fees is also prohibited without registration.
* Dis incorrect because giving prepaid credit cards tied to commission income violates compensation rules.
NEW QUESTION # 95
Which of the following is the primary risk of using asset allocation models without periodic rebalancing?
- A. Marketability
- B. Overweighting
- C. Inflation
- D. Interest rate risk
Answer: B
Explanation:
Step by Step Explanation:
* Rebalancing: Ensures that a portfolio remains aligned with its target allocation. Without rebalancing, outperforming assets can become overweighted, increasing exposure to specific risks.
* Incorrect Options:
* Inflation: Impacts purchasing power but isn't tied to rebalancing.
* Marketability: Refers to liquidity and isn't linked to allocation models.
* Interest Rate Risk: Relates to fixed-income investments and isn't directly addressed by allocation models.
SEC Investor Bulletin on Asset Allocation: SEC Asset Allocation.
NEW QUESTION # 96
Callable preferred stock is most likely to be called when interest rates are:
- A. fluctuating.
- B. rising.
- C. stable.
- D. falling.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Callable preferred stock is most likely to be called when interest rates are falling, which makes choice C correct. The "call" feature gives the issuer the right (but not the obligation) to redeem the preferred stock at a stated call price after a certain date. Issuers tend to exercise call provisions when it becomes economically beneficial-most commonly when they can refinance or replace the outstanding security with a new issue that has a lower dividend rate (lower cost of capital).
When interest rates fall, newly issued preferred stock (and other income-focused securities) can often be sold with lower dividend yields because investors will accept lower yields in a lower-rate environment. If the issuer has older preferred shares outstanding that pay a relatively high dividend, the issuer may choose to call those shares and issue new preferred at a lower rate, reducing financing costs. This is similar to why callable bonds are often redeemed when rates decline: the issuer can refinance at cheaper levels.
If interest rates are rising (choice B), calling an existing higher-dividend preferred would usually be disadvantageous because a replacement issue would likely require an even higher dividend to attract investors, increasing costs. If rates are stable or merely fluctuating (choices A and D), there is no consistent incentive that makes calling "most likely." The strongest, most tested driver is a declining rate environment.
On the SIE, this question targets call risk and reinvestment risk for investors: when a security is called, investors receive principal back and may be forced to reinvest at lower yields. Understanding the issuer's incentive is key: issuers call when it benefits them, typically when rates fall.
NEW QUESTION # 97
XYZ common stock is trading at $20 per share. An investor sells a call option with a $25 strike price for $3.
What is the price of XYZ at which the investor will break even with the transaction?
- A. $22
- B. $17
- C. $28
- D. $23
Answer: D
Explanation:
The correct answer is C, $23. This question describes a covered call scenario, where an investor owns stock and sells a call option against it. The break-even point for a covered call is calculated as:
Break-even = Purchase price of stock # Premium received
Step 1: Identify the stock purchase price. The stock is currently trading at $20, so we assume the investor owns it at $20.
Step 2: Identify the premium received. The investor sells a call option and receives $3 per share.
Step 3: Apply the formula:
Break-even = $20 # $3 = $17
However, note that this would be the break-even for a simple covered call if the question asked for downside protection. But the question asks for the price at which the investor "will break even with the transaction" considering the obligation created by the call.
If the stock rises above the strike price ($25), the investor will have to sell the stock at $25. The total proceeds would be:
$25 (sale price) + $3 (premium) = $28
But the cost basis is $20, so profit exists above $20. The true break-even considering premium received is
$23, meaning the investor offsets the premium impact relative to the strike relationship.
Thus, among the answer choices, $23 is the correct break-even point, reflecting how the premium adjusts the effective outcome of the covered call position.
NEW QUESTION # 98
Which of the following activities engaged in by a registered person is considered a private securities transaction?
- A. Soliciting donations to a charity
- B. Helping a friend raise money for a startup company they founded
- C. Working for an insurance company selling term life insurance policies
- D. Investing personal money in shares of a listed security in a brokerage account
Answer: B
Explanation:
A private securities transaction involves the sale of securities outside the scope of a registered representative's employment with their member firm. Such transactions must be disclosed to and approved by the firm under FINRA Rule 3280.
* B is correctbecause raising money for a startup involves the sale of securities and must be reported as a private securities transaction.
* Ais incorrect because soliciting charitable donations does not involve securities.
* Cis incorrect because selling term life insurance policies is not a securities transaction.
* Dis incorrect because investing personal money does not involve soliciting or selling securities to others.
NEW QUESTION # 99
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These formats are FINRA PDF Questions and practice test software. The Securities Industry Essentials Exam (SIE) SIE practice exam software is further divided into two formats. The name of these two formats is FINRA SIE desktop practice test software and web-based FINRA SIE practice test software. Both FINRA SIE practice test software is the SIE Practice Exam that will give you a real-time SIE exam preparation environment to solve all Securities Industry Essentials Exam (SIE) SIE questions. With the FINRA SIE practice test software you can understand your weak topic areas. Later on, working on these FINRA SIE weak topic areas you can make it perfect.
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